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Calculations with ISPIN=1 after calculation with ISPIN=2 showed magnetization = 0

Posted: Thu Feb 21, 2013 9:35 am
by brock
Dear all,

assume one has performed (for one configuration of ions) a calculation with ISPIN = 2 (the system has an odd number of electrons) and it has shown that magnetization=0.

Now assume one wants to do a MD simulation, starting with the above configuration.
Is it valid to perform this MD run with ISPIN = 1 (for performance reasons), since we already know that the system is not magnetized. Or may it happen that the system shows spin polarization for other configurations than the one tested?

Best,
Brock
<span class='smallblacktext'>[ Edited ]</span>

Re: Calculations with ISPIN=1 after calculation with ISPIN=2 showed magnetization = 0

Posted: Thu Sep 12, 2024 8:18 am
by support_vasp

Hi,

We're sorry that we didn’t answer your question. This does not live up to the quality of support that we aim to provide. The team has since expanded. If we can still help with your problem, please ask again in a new post, linking to this one, and we will answer as quickly as possible.

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